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AACN CCRN-Adult Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	In musculoskeletal, neurological, and psychosocial areas, the syllabus includes managing trauma, neurological disorders, and behavioral health issues. This emphasizes the holistic approach required in critical care settings. Lastly, multisystem complications such as sepsis and shock states are included to assess the ability to manage life-threatening conditions that affect multiple organ systems.
Topic 2	The endocrine, hematology, gastrointestinal, renal, and integumentary domains are also covered, focusing on conditions like diabetes mellitus, acute kidney injury, and infections. This section highlights the need for nurses to manage complex patient scenarios involving multiple systems effectively.
Topic 4	PROFESSIONAL CARING & ETHICAL PRACTICE: This section assesses the skills of Clinical Nurse Leaders in professional caring and ethical practice. It covers advocacy and moral agency, highlighting the importance of representing patients' interests in healthcare decisions. The section also addresses caring practices that promote patient-centered care and response to diversity, ensuring that care is tailored to individual needs.
Topic 5	Facilitation of learning is emphasized, indicating the role of nurses in educating patients and families about health management. Collaboration is another key component, focusing on teamwork within healthcare settings to improve patient outcomes. Systems thinking is included to encourage understanding of how different components of healthcare interact. Finally, clinical inquiry is highlighted as a means to foster evidence-based practice and continuous improvement in patient care.
Topic 6	CLINICAL JUDGMENT: This section measures the skills of Critical Care Nurses and covers a wide range of medical conditions across various systems. It includes cardiovascular issues such as acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, and cardiomyopathies, demonstrating the need for in-depth knowledge in managing these critical conditions. The section also addresses respiratory emergencies like pulmonary embolism and ARDS, emphasizing the importance of understanding respiratory failure and chronic conditions.

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AACN CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Sample Questions (Q65-Q70):

NEW QUESTION # 65
How often should vital signs and neurological assessment be performed for a patient who has received Recombinant Tissue Plasminogen Activator (rtPA) for acute ischemic stroke?

A. Every 30 minutes for four hours, then hourly until 24 hours following initial treatment
B. Every 15 minutes for the first two hours, then every 30 minutes for six hours, then hourly until 24 hours following initial treatment
C. Every 15 minutes for the first hour, then every 30 minutes for two hours, then every four hours until
24 hours following initial treatment
D. Every 30 minutes for six hours, then hourly until 24 hours following initial treatment

Answer: B

Explanation:
Fibrinolytic therapy is administered for acute ischemic stroke in an attempt to restore perfusion to the affected area. IV administration of rtPA is considered in all patients who meet criteria and can be treated within three hours of the onset of symptoms. Due to the increased risk of Intracerebral Hemorrhage (ICH) following rtPA administration, frequent vital signs and neurologic assessments are essential. Vital signs and neurologic checks are done every 15 minutes for the first two hours after rtPA is administered, then every 30 minutes for an additional six hours, then every hour until 24 hours have passed since rtPA was given. If neurologic deterioration occurs, rtPA is stopped (if still infusing), the physician is notified, and a stat head CT is performed to assess for bleeding.

NEW QUESTION # 66
A 22-year-old trauma patient sustained multiple fractures after a fall. The patient fell 50 feet from a cliff while rock climbing without a harness. The patient is intubated and sedated with casts to bilateral lower extremities.
The nurse should recognize that young adults are

A. influenced by long-time intervals spent in virtual reality.
B. developmentally vulnerable to peer pressure in extreme sports.
C. more likely to engage in risk-taking behaviors.
D. working through trust issues that cause them to test limits.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 67
An older adult patient has been in the unit for 60 hours. The patient has received benzodiazepines for agitation, opioids for persistent pain, and bronchodilators. The patient reports that there is too much noise, and they cannot get peace and quiet. The nurse should evaluate for

A. situational depression.
B. an anxiety disorder.
C. sleep disturbances.
D. acute manic episodes.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The patient who has been in the unit for 60 hours and reports agitation, noise disturbances, and an inability to get peace and quiet may be experiencing sleep disturbances. Factors such as the ICU environment, frequent interventions, and the medications being administered (e.g., benzodiazepines, opioids, and bronchodilators) can significantly disrupt sleep patterns, leading to further agitation and delirium. Addressing the patient's sleep hygiene and implementing measures to promote rest can be beneficial.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 52

NEW QUESTION # 68
All of the following arrhythmias originate in the ventricular muscle or Purkinje system of the heart EXCEPT:

A. Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)
B. Accelerated ventricular rhythm
C. Premature Ventricular Complexes (PVCs)
D. Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

Answer: D

Explanation:
SVTs are characterized by any rhythm at a rate faster than 100 bpm that originates just above the ventricle or that utilize the atria or AV (Atrioventricular) junction as a part of the circuit that maintains the tachycardia. This type of arrhythmia can include sinus tachycardia, AT, atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, and junctional tachycardia.
Arrhythmias originating in the ventricles (or Purkinje system) include:
* PVCs
* Ventricular rhythm and accelerated ventricular rhythm
* VT
* Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)
* Ventricular asystole

NEW QUESTION # 69
Analyze and interpret the following ABG results:
* pH: 7.44
* PaCO2: 25 mmHg
* HCO3: 16 mEq/L

A. Fully compensated respiratory alkalosis
B. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis
C. Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis
D. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis

Answer: A

Explanation:
Normal pH ranges from 7.35-7.45. Normal CO2 (carbon dioxide) levels range from 35-45 mmHg, and normal HCO3 (bicarbonate) levels range from 22-26 mEq/L. CO2 is the respiratory component and HCO3 is the metabolic component. The component that matches the pH is the system controlling the ABG (Arterial Blood Gas).
In this scenario, the pH is at the high end of normal (toward the alkalotic side), but the HCO3 (acidotic at
16 mEq/L) and CO2 (alkalotic at 25 mmHg) levels indicate something abnormal is happening. Because the body generally does not overcompensate, the alkalotic factor is the primary culprit. Since the pH is normal, but PaCO2 and HCO3 are abnormal, the body is compensating for something:
pH 7.35 - 7.40 - Recovering acidosis
pH 7.40 - 7.45 - Recovering alkalosis
Here, there is a respiratory alkalosis, and the normal pH means it has been fully compensated.

NEW QUESTION # 70
......

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Free PDF 2025 High Pass-Rate AACN Exam Discount CCRN-Adult Voucher

AACN CCRN-Adult Exam Syllabus Topics:

Latest CCRN-Adult Test Report - Exam CCRN-Adult Vce

AACN CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Sample Questions (Q65-Q70):

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